ONLINE EXAM

Eng 1

Total Marks 10

1 / 10

We omit articles before:

2 / 10

What is the correct article to use before “FBI”?

3 / 10

Which of the following is correct?

4 / 10

Which of the following is correct?

5 / 10

We omit articles before:

6 / 10

What is the correct article to use before “orange”?

7 / 10

Which sentence is correct?

8 / 10

What is the correct article to use before “Islamabad”?

9 / 10

We use “The” before:

10 / 10

We use “The” before:

Your score is

The average score is 20%

Biochemistry 1st semester Part 2

Hallmark College of Nursing

Paper Instructions

• Total Time: 50 Minutes
• Read all questions carefully before answering.
• No cheating or unfair means are allowed.
• Do not close, refresh, or leave the quiz screen during the examination.
• Each participant may attempt the quiz only once.
• Ensure a stable internet connection throughout the quiz.
• Any violation of the rules may result in disqualification.
• Submit your answers before the time expires.

Best of Luck!

The number of attempts remaining is 2

1 / 100

Which polysaccharide gives structural support to plants?

2 / 100

Which type of carbohydrate is glycogen?

3 / 100

Which carbohydrate is made of many glucose units?

4 / 100

Carbohydrates are primarily composed of which elements?

5 / 100

Blood glucose estimation is an example of:

6 / 100

Homeostasis means:

7 / 100

Which part of phospholipid is hydrophobic?

8 / 100

Cellulose is mainly found in:

9 / 100

Which digestive enzyme is inactive in acidic pH of stomach?

10 / 100

Active transport requires:

11 / 100

Which polysaccharide stores energy in animals?

12 / 100

Which biomolecule carries genetic information?

13 / 100

Which monosaccharide is sweetest?

14 / 100

The end products of carbohydrate digestion are mostly:

15 / 100

Which carbohydrate is rapidly absorbed into blood?

16 / 100

Which carbohydrate cannot be digested by humans?

17 / 100

Which carbohydrate is non-sweet and insoluble?

18 / 100

Which carbohydrate is used for immediate energy during exercise?

19 / 100

A high-fiber diet helps prevent:

20 / 100

Endocytosis means:

21 / 100

Lysosomes are known for:

22 / 100

What is the main function of carbohydrates in the body?

23 / 100

Which sugar is found in honey?

24 / 100

The study of molecular processes in cells helps in understanding:

25 / 100

Which sugar is absorbed directly into bloodstream?

26 / 100

Starch is a storage polysaccharide in:

27 / 100

Who proposed the fluid mosaic model?

28 / 100

Which statement best explains the role of biochemistry in healthcare?

29 / 100

The plasma membrane is described as selectively permeable because it:

30 / 100

Which hormone helps regulate blood glucose?

31 / 100

Carbohydrates provide approximately how many calories per gram?

32 / 100

Which carbohydrate is stored in the liver?

33 / 100

Which carbohydrate is also called table sugar?

34 / 100

Which enzyme starts carbohydrate digestion in the mouth?

35 / 100

Glucose is an example of a:

36 / 100

DNA is mainly located in the:

37 / 100

Integral proteins are:

38 / 100

Which process helps glucose enter intestinal cells?

39 / 100

The glycemic index measures:

40 / 100

Simple diffusion does not require:

41 / 100

Diffusion is the movement of molecules from:

42 / 100

RNA plays an important role in:

43 / 100

The plasma membrane mainly regulates:

44 / 100

Facilitated diffusion requires:

45 / 100

Excess carbohydrates are converted into:

46 / 100

The main function of lipids in the body is:

47 / 100

Osmosis is diffusion of:

48 / 100

Fructose is naturally abundant in:

49 / 100

Biochemistry is important in medicine because it helps understand:

50 / 100

Which carbohydrate is known as fruit sugar?

51 / 100

Carbohydrates spare the body proteins from being used for:

52 / 100

Which carbohydrate is important in DNA structure?

53 / 100

Which monosaccharide is part of RNA?

54 / 100

Sodium-potassium pump is an example of:

55 / 100

Diffusion is movement of particles from:

56 / 100

Phagocytosis is called:

57 / 100

Enzyme deficiency can lead to:

58 / 100

Hypertonic solution causes cell to:

59 / 100

The digestion of carbohydrates begins in the:

60 / 100

Maltose is made up of:

61 / 100

Glycogen is mainly stored in the:

62 / 100

Which organelle contains digestive enzymes?

63 / 100

Lactose is commonly found in:

64 / 100

Which carbohydrate is known as milk sugar?

65 / 100

Which enzyme converts starch into maltose?

66 / 100

Peripheral proteins are:

67 / 100

Which disaccharide contains glucose and galactose?

68 / 100

Sucrose is composed of glucose and:

69 / 100

The brush border enzymes are present in the:

70 / 100

Carbohydrates are classified based on:

71 / 100

Which part of small intestine receives pancreatic amylase?

72 / 100

The inability to digest cellulose is due to lack of:

73 / 100

Which organ produces pancreatic amylase?

74 / 100

Pinocytosis is called:

75 / 100

Which enzyme digests lactose?

76 / 100

The plasma membrane is primarily composed of:

77 / 100

A nurse uses knowledge of biochemistry mainly to:

78 / 100

Which monosaccharide is important for brain function?

79 / 100

Galactose combines with glucose to form:

80 / 100

Which part of phospholipid is hydrophilic?

81 / 100

Deficiency of lactase enzyme leads to:

82 / 100

Osmosis specifically involves movement of:

83 / 100

Osmosis occurs through a:

84 / 100

What is the major site of glucose absorption?

85 / 100

Dietary fiber mainly consists of:

86 / 100

What is produced after complete digestion of starch?

87 / 100

Which disaccharide is formed during starch digestion?

88 / 100

Which carbohydrate is commonly known as blood sugar?

89 / 100

Cholesterol in membrane helps to:

90 / 100

Exocytosis is:

91 / 100

The Golgi apparatus mainly functions in:

92 / 100

Proteins are made up of:

93 / 100

Which enzyme breaks sucrose into glucose and fructose?

94 / 100

Which structure increases absorption in the small intestine?

95 / 100

Which process requires energy?

96 / 100

Which enzyme breaks maltose into glucose?

97 / 100

What is the storage form of glucose in plants?

98 / 100

Absorption of carbohydrates mainly occurs in the:

99 / 100

Which of the following is the simplest form of carbohydrate?

100 / 100

Hypotonic solution causes animal cell to:

Your score is

The average score is 15%

FON 1 1st Semester Part 1

Hallmark College of Nursing

Paper Instructions

• Total Time: 50 Minutes
• Read all questions carefully before answering.
• No cheating or unfair means are allowed.
• Do not close, refresh, or leave the quiz screen during the examination.
• Each participant may attempt the quiz only once.
• Ensure a stable internet connection throughout the quiz.
• Any violation of the rules may result in disqualification.
• Submit your answers before the time expires.

Best of Luck!

FON 1st Semester Part 1

1 / 100

Collecting substances to provide structural and biochemical support by:

2 / 100

What is apnea?

3 / 100

What is the normal respiratory rate for an adult?

4 / 100

What is the significance of a high pulse pressure?

5 / 100

What is hypothermia?

6 / 100

The best overall rule for avoiding accidents with equipment is:

7 / 100

Personal protective equipment consist of

8 / 100

What is the normal range for axillary temperature?

9 / 100

What is hypertension?

10 / 100

What is the normal body temperature for a healthy adult?

11 / 100

To prevent pressure ulcer which rule is used for position:

12 / 100

What is a diuretic?

13 / 100

What is an ACE inhibitor?

14 / 100

Which layer of the skin produces collagen protein and elastic fibers?

15 / 100

Which of the following is a potential hazard?

16 / 100

Layer of epidermis that produces protein but cannot duplicate, provides strength and flexibility

17 / 100

A bed ridden patient with a maroon localized area of discolored intact skin

18 / 100

A nurse is teaching. Which teaching topic should take priority?

19 / 100

Physical Hazards include all EXCEPT?

20 / 100

What is the normal range for oral temperature?

21 / 100

Cells in the epidermis layer of skin which provide immunity:

22 / 100

To assess the risk using the Norton scale, higher risk is when the value is:

23 / 100

What is the normal pulse rate for an adult?

24 / 100

What is a beta blocker?

25 / 100

Pathophysiology of pressure ulcer sequence:

26 / 100

Hina Riaz expresses concerns about her body image. Most appropriate intervention?

27 / 100

What is the most appropriate action of the nurse to prevent child poisoning?

28 / 100

If you wanted to convey the most severe type of hazard, which word would you use?

29 / 100

What does COSHH stand for?

30 / 100

What is hyperthermia?

31 / 100

The greatest risk for developing a pressure injury is assigned a Braden Scale score of:

32 / 100

While preparing to educate a 4-year-old, teaching include?

33 / 100

Most body odor is the result of bacterial metabolism of secretions produced by:

34 / 100

What is the diastolic blood pressure?

35 / 100

Albinism have a defect in tyrosinase. In what epidermal layer is tyrosinase active?

36 / 100

Chemical hazards include

37 / 100

The enzyme that governs the lifespan of aging skin cells is called

38 / 100

What is cyanosis?

39 / 100

What part of the skin is called the true skin?

40 / 100

At a very old client home care, highest priority question?

41 / 100

Which part of the brain is responsible for regulating body temperature?

42 / 100

What are some causes of orthostatic hypotension?

43 / 100

What is pulse pressure?

44 / 100

What is a hypertensive crisis?

45 / 100

What is a calcium channel blocker?

46 / 100

Which of the following is not a chemical-related health hazard?

47 / 100

What is a fever thermometer?

48 / 100

A hazard is an activity that is an actual or possible source of harm. Hazards can be:

49 / 100

Which one of the following epidermis layer acts as a first line of defense?

50 / 100

Skin break with deep tissue involvement down to the bone, tendon, or muscle

51 / 100

What is the systolic blood pressure?

52 / 100

The appropriate nursing action to decrease the risk of client falls is:

53 / 100

What is dyspnea?

54 / 100

Raises the side rails. What other intervention should be done?

55 / 100

What are some symptoms of a hypertensive crisis?

56 / 100

What are some symptoms of orthostatic hypotension?

57 / 100

By avoiding recapping needles, we can prevent from which type of hazard?

58 / 100

What is the normal blood pressure range for an adult?

59 / 100

A 70-year-old client learning to manage a quad wheel chair. Nurse assists by:

60 / 100

Orthopedic ward supine position, most common site to develop pressure ulcer include all except:

61 / 100

Based on the observable depth of tissue damage, there are how many stages of ulcers?

62 / 100

Blood vessels, sebaceous glands, sweat glands located in which layer of skin

63 / 100

A nurse instructing the family to store poisonous substances:

64 / 100

An agent which has the potential to cause harm to a vulnerable target, is called

65 / 100

Patient with an injury that has full-thickness loss without exposure of bone or muscle

66 / 100

What is orthostatic hypotension?

67 / 100

A child has third-degree burns. Which nursing diagnosis takes priority?

68 / 100

Which nursing action is correct when a fire occurs?

69 / 100

Most important factor to consider in this [fall risk] assessment is:

70 / 100

What is the normal oxygen saturation level?

71 / 100

Presents clinically as an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater:

72 / 100

The most common areas where pressure injuries occur are the

73 / 100

What is a blood pressure cuff?

74 / 100

What is the most accurate way to measure body temperature?

75 / 100

What is the normal capillary refill time?

76 / 100

Function of the skin is to provide:

77 / 100

Which one of the following is the extrinsic risk factor for developing pressure ulcer?

78 / 100

Which of the following cell mediate immune function in the dermis layer of the skin

79 / 100

What is tachycardia?

80 / 100

The site which are more prone to develop pressure ulcer in a bed ridden patient in Fowler position:

81 / 100

Pressure ulcer clean with:

82 / 100

Types of Hazards include

83 / 100

Which of the following statements by the parent indicates further training required?

84 / 100

Purplish black area on the patient’s left heel. The skin is intact, site feels heavy and spongy.

85 / 100

The condition of being protected from harm; achieved acceptable level of safety

86 / 100

To prevent physical hazards, what should be done?

87 / 100

The most important factor in the development of pressure injuries is

88 / 100

Which patient is at most risk for pressure ulcers?

89 / 100

What is hypotension?

90 / 100

65-year-old with redness and warmth on sacral area. Most appropriate action:

91 / 100

Ways to minimize hazards include all EXCEPT?

92 / 100

What is the Glasgow Coma Scale?

93 / 100

What is bradycardia?

94 / 100

During thermoregulation, the body’s skeletal muscles act as

95 / 100

What is the medical term for a fever?

96 / 100

Extensions protruding into the epidermis which also contain small capillary loops

97 / 100

What is the normal range for rectal temperature?

98 / 100

Nurse understands that the most frequent cause of injury to toddlers is:

99 / 100

Elderly bedridden patient. What factor is most crucial in determining the risk in population?

100 / 100

Accidents, Ergonomics (wrong lifting, wrong movement, wrong posture) are which type of hazards?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

FON 1st Semester Part 2

Hallmark College of Nursing

Paper Instructions

• Total Time: 50 Minutes
• Read all questions carefully before answering.
• No cheating or unfair means are allowed.
• Do not close, refresh, or leave the quiz screen during the examination.
• Each participant may attempt the quiz only once.
• Ensure a stable internet connection throughout the quiz.
• Any violation of the rules may result in disqualification.
• Submit your answers before the time expires.

Best of Luck!

1 / 100

What is blood pressure?

2 / 100

Collect data about a problem that has already been identified

3 / 100

Orders and directives are the example of

4 / 100

All of the following are examples of verbal communication except

5 / 100

What is the name of the condition in which the heart beats too slowly?

6 / 100

What is considered a normal pulse rate in adults?

7 / 100

Assessment that focuses on past medical history, family history

8 / 100

What is the normal oxygen saturation level in adults?

9 / 100

Which of the following can cause tachycardia?

10 / 100

What is the term used to describe a high respiratory rate?

11 / 100

In which of these problems, is the actual message lost in the abundance of transmitted information?

12 / 100

What is considered a normal respiratory rate in adults?

13 / 100

What is the term used to describe an irregular heartbeat?

14 / 100

Globalization, growth of trade unions, public relations and a positive atmosphere enable

15 / 100

What is the term used to describe a low body temperature?

16 / 100

WHO has its headquarters in

17 / 100

The mode of communication that involves a single source transmitting information to a large number of receivers

18 / 100

What is the name of the device used to measure heart rate?

19 / 100

Pathway through which an encoded message is transmitted to a receiver

20 / 100

All of the following are examples of non-therapeutic responses except

21 / 100

Which vital signs are measured using a stethoscope?

22 / 100

What is considered hypertension?

23 / 100

Which of the following can cause an irregular heartbeat?

24 / 100

The communication which promotes understanding and constructive relationship

25 / 100

Which vital sign is measured using a thermometer?

26 / 100

Which vital sign is most important to monitor in a patient with heatstroke?

27 / 100

Audio Visual communication combines

28 / 100

What is the normal pulse rate in infants?

29 / 100

The step of the nursing process include systematic collection of all subjective and objective data

30 / 100

What is considered a normal diastolic blood pressure reading?

31 / 100

The best method of teaching is to

32 / 100

What is the normal range for blood pressure?

33 / 100

What is considered a normal systolic blood pressure reading?

34 / 100

What is the normal range for oxygen saturation in infants?

35 / 100

Which of the following is not a symptom of an irregular heartbeat?

36 / 100

If you don’t agree with someone else, what would you say?

37 / 100

Communication problems otherwise known as

38 / 100

This step begins after the care plan has been made, nurse performs interventions

39 / 100

World Health Organization was established in

40 / 100

Which of these factors is not required for communication growth?

41 / 100

What is the term used to describe a low carbon dioxide level in the blood?

42 / 100

What is the name of the structure that regulates heart rate?

43 / 100

___ is the receiver in the process of communication

44 / 100

Which vital sign is most important to monitor in a patient with anaphylaxis?

45 / 100

Its purpose is to repeat the main thought expressed by the patient

46 / 100

A nursing care plan is

47 / 100

What is diastolic blood pressure?

48 / 100

What is the normal respiratory rate in infants?

49 / 100

Interaction inside the classroom should generate

50 / 100

What are some medications used to treat hypertension?

51 / 100

What is the term used to describe a high blood pressure?

52 / 100

Which of these moves from the grass root level?

53 / 100

When you e-mail, fax, talk on the phone and participate in electronic chat rooms, engaging in

54 / 100

Which vital sign is most important to monitor in a patient with hypovolemic shock?

55 / 100

Which vital sign is often used to assess pain in nonverbal patients?

56 / 100

What is the term used to describe a high body temperature?

57 / 100

Which vital sign is most important to monitor in a patient with a head injury?

58 / 100

For effective communication, which of these commandments should not be followed?

59 / 100

What is the normal range for heart rate in infants?

60 / 100

Which of the following can cause bradycardia?

61 / 100

What is the term used to describe a high carbon dioxide level in the blood?

62 / 100

What is the normal body temperature in adults?

63 / 100

Which chamber of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?

64 / 100

What is the term used to describe a skipped heartbeat?

65 / 100

“Tell me more about that.” statements are examples of which therapeutic techniques?

66 / 100

What is the term used to describe a low respiratory rate?

67 / 100

In this step of nursing process, you prioritize the diagnosis

68 / 100

What are some lifestyle changes that can help lower blood pressure?

69 / 100

___ is the first enemy of communication

70 / 100

What is the term used to describe a low blood pressure?

71 / 100

Which of these is the external sounds present in the channels of communication?

72 / 100

Which vital sign is most important to monitor in a patient with a drug overdose?

73 / 100

What is the term used to describe low oxygen saturation?

74 / 100

Which vital sign is most important to monitor in a patient with sepsis?

75 / 100

What are some risk factors for hypertension?

76 / 100

What is the term used to describe a slow heartbeat?

77 / 100

Which chamber of the heart pumps blood to the lungs?

78 / 100

Which vital sign is measured using a pulse oximeter?

79 / 100

Dress code is an example of communication

80 / 100

What is systolic blood pressure?

81 / 100

___ means to impart understanding of the message

82 / 100

The key reason that mediated communication cannot match face-to-face

83 / 100

Which vital sign is measured using a sphygmomanometer?

84 / 100

Which vital sign is most important to monitor in a patient with cardiac arrest?

85 / 100

Which vital sign is most important to monitor in a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis?

86 / 100

What is considered a normal blood pressure in adults?

87 / 100

Which vital sign is most important to monitor in a patient with a spinal cord injury?

88 / 100

What is the normal range for heart rate in adults?

89 / 100

What is the term used to describe high oxygen saturation?

90 / 100

Which of the following combinations is an example of written communication?

91 / 100

Which of these should not be avoided for effective communication?

92 / 100

According to Hoben is the verbal interchange of thought or idea?

93 / 100

Which vital sign is most important to monitor in a patient with respiratory distress?

94 / 100

What is the term used to describe a high pulse rate?

95 / 100

When is the communication process complete?

96 / 100

What is the term used to describe a rapid heartbeat?

97 / 100

What is the term used to describe a low pulse rate?

98 / 100

Which of these must be avoided for effective communication?

99 / 100

What is considered prehypertension?

100 / 100

Which of the following can increase heart rate?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

FON 1st Semester Part 3

Hallmark College of Nursing

Paper Instructions

• Total Time: 50 Minutes
• Read all questions carefully before answering.
• No cheating or unfair means are allowed.
• Do not close, refresh, or leave the quiz screen during the examination.
• Each participant may attempt the quiz only once.
• Ensure a stable internet connection throughout the quiz.
• Any violation of the rules may result in disqualification.
• Submit your answers before the time expires.

Best of Luck!

1 / 60

The mode of reproduction which occurs in mycoplasma is

2 / 60

Which of the following is pathogenic to humans?

3 / 60

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs include all of the following except which?

4 / 60

Nurse in the Mughal period was known as

5 / 60

How did Florence Nightingale learn about nursing?

6 / 60

Mesosomes are

7 / 60

Virus will contain

8 / 60

Protein particles which can infect are called

9 / 60

The orderly increase in all components of protoplasm of a cell is called

10 / 60

All prokaryotes are surrounded by a cell wall except

11 / 60

The wonder drug of second world war is produced by

12 / 60

The enzyme needed in biological systems for joining two molecules is called

13 / 60

During which war did United States ask for Florence’s assistance in setting up military hospitals?

14 / 60

Which one of the following was Gram negative, chemolithotrophic bacteria?

15 / 60

In what period of nursing does people believe in TREPHINING to drive evil force away?

16 / 60

The list of minimal elements that human beings require for life and strive for attaining them is called

17 / 60

During Crimean war, how many nurses joined Florence Nightingale to care for the soldiers?

18 / 60

The Largest virus is

19 / 60

Somatic cells of the adult body are haploid in many except

20 / 60

Who is called the father of sanitation?

21 / 60

Period of nurse where religious Christian orders emerged to take care of the sick

22 / 60

Congenital diseases are

23 / 60

Mesosomes are the part of

24 / 60

The most unique characteristic of nursing as a profession is

25 / 60

The site of energy production in a cell

26 / 60

Centromere is that part of chromosome where

27 / 60

Viral genome can become integrated into the bacterial genomes are known as

28 / 60

Gram staining is an example for

29 / 60

Which one of the following is about Herpes viruses?

30 / 60

Organelles with hydrolytic enzymes are

31 / 60

Bacterial ribosomes are composed of

32 / 60

The etiologic agent of botulism is a

33 / 60

During which war was Florence Nightingale put in charge?

34 / 60

Rod shaped bacteria are known as

35 / 60

Rancidity of stored foods is due to the activity of

36 / 60

Erythrocytes will get its ATP energy only by

37 / 60

An example for common air borne epidemic disease

38 / 60

What country did Florence Nightingale train in nursing

39 / 60

Period of nursing where religious Christian orders emerged to take care of the sick?

40 / 60

What’s the primary goal of nursing?

41 / 60

Nightingale believed that she was “called by — to help others.”

42 / 60

Founder of modern nursing is

43 / 60

They put girls clothes on male infants to drive evil forces away

44 / 60

Histones are found in

45 / 60

The characteristic shape of the bacteria is maintained because of

46 / 60

What profession did Florence Nightingale hold?

47 / 60

Cell wall of gram negative bacteria is

48 / 60

In the past, the site of health care was

49 / 60

Who was the first nurse in Islamic and Eastern world

50 / 60

The motile bacteria is

51 / 60

The viruses that live as parasites on bacteria are

52 / 60

Enzyme hydrolyzing bacterial cell wall

53 / 60

Role of bacteria in carbon cycle is

54 / 60

A population of cells derived from a single cell are called

55 / 60

The nucleus controls protein synthesis in the cytoplasm by sending

56 / 60

Bacterial locomotion is accomplished by

57 / 60

The photorespiration involves

58 / 60

The most infectious food borne disease is

59 / 60

The major role of minor elements inside living organisms is to act as

60 / 60

The bacterial pili mainly contain

Your score is

The average score is 0%

Anatomy BSN

Hallmark College of Nursing

Paper Instructions

• Total Time: 50 Minutes
• Read all questions carefully before answering.
• No cheating or unfair means are allowed.
• Do not close, refresh, or leave the quiz screen during the examination.
• Each participant may attempt the quiz only once.
• Ensure a stable internet connection throughout the quiz.
• Any violation of the rules may result in disqualification.
• Submit your answers before the time expires.

Best of Luck!

1 / 100

First step of digestion:

2 / 100

Left ventricle pumps:

3 / 100

Rectum stores:

4 / 100

Lymph is:

5 / 100

Largest organ:

6 / 100

Main function of digestive system:

7 / 100

Appendix is:

8 / 100

Defense mechanism:

9 / 100

Sternocleidomastoid muscle is in:

10 / 100

Bile is produced by:

11 / 100

Muscle produces heat:

12 / 100

Thymus gland:

13 / 100

Heart pumps:

14 / 100

Hair function:

15 / 100

Sebaceous glands:

16 / 100

Outer layer:

17 / 100

Flexor muscle:

18 / 100

Veins:

19 / 100

Pulmonary circulation:

20 / 100

Amylase digests:

21 / 100

Digastric muscle:

22 / 100

Blood carries:

23 / 100

Protein digestion starts in:

24 / 100

Hyoid bone:

25 / 100

Tonsils protect:

26 / 100

Largest gland:

27 / 100

Infection causes:

28 / 100

Stomach secretes:

29 / 100

Function of lymph:

30 / 100

Function:

31 / 100

Layers:

32 / 100

Villi increase:

33 / 100

Chambers:

34 / 100

Peristalsis is:

35 / 100

Triceps muscle:

36 / 100

Digestion completes in:

37 / 100

Large intestine:

38 / 100

Lymph capillaries:

39 / 100

Lymph vessels carry:

40 / 100

Largest muscle:

41 / 100

Neck muscles assist:

42 / 100

Temporalis muscle:

43 / 100

Diaphragm is:

44 / 100

Function of esophagus:

45 / 100

Lymph vessels resemble:

46 / 100

Trapezius muscle:

47 / 100

Arteries:

48 / 100

Sweat glands:

49 / 100

Dermis contains:

50 / 100

Largest lymph organ:

51 / 100

Bile function:

52 / 100

Deltoid muscle is in:

53 / 100

Saliva contains:

54 / 100

Edema is:

55 / 100

Epidermis:

56 / 100

Pancreas secretes:

57 / 100

Lymph nodes:

58 / 100

Biceps muscle:

59 / 100

Neck muscles help in:

60 / 100

Spleen function:

61 / 100

Lacteals absorb:

62 / 100

Lymphatic system lacks:

63 / 100

Lipase digests:

64 / 100

Melanin:

65 / 100

Neck muscles attach to:

66 / 100

Anus function:

67 / 100

Function of trapezius:

68 / 100

Small intestine function:

69 / 100

Muscle fatigue:

70 / 100

Capillaries:

71 / 100

Lymph flow is:

72 / 100

Intercostal muscles:

73 / 100

Largest organ:

74 / 100

Platysma muscle:

75 / 100

Dermis contains:

76 / 100

Lymphatic system works with:

77 / 100

Function of thymus decreases with:

78 / 100

Gallbladder stores:

79 / 100

Sweat gland:

80 / 100

Smallest muscle:

81 / 100

Lymph drains into:

82 / 100

Masseter muscle:

83 / 100

Organ where digestion begins:

84 / 100

Enzyme in stomach:

85 / 100

Immune cells:

86 / 100

Infrahyoid muscles:

87 / 100

Lymph originates from:

88 / 100

Suprahyoid muscles:

89 / 100

Right atrium receives:

90 / 100

Trypsin digests:

91 / 100

Lymph nodes contain:

92 / 100

Lymph contains:

93 / 100

Muscle tissue characteristic:

94 / 100

Heart rate normal:

95 / 100

Extensor muscle:

96 / 100

Skin layers:

97 / 100

Digestive system includes:

98 / 100

Lymph system returns:

99 / 100

Function of sternocleidomastoid:

100 / 100

Scalene muscles:

Your score is

The average score is 0%

Anatomy BSN

1 / 70

Hydrophilic means:

2 / 70

Active transport requires:

3 / 70

Osmosis is:

4 / 70

Stages of homeostasis:

5 / 70

Processing is done by:

6 / 70

Body temperature regulation is:

7 / 70

Which organ helps maintain homeostasis?

8 / 70

Effectors:

9 / 70

Number of chromosomes in humans:

10 / 70

Cytoplasm is:

11 / 70

“Medial” means:

12 / 70

Lungs are ______ to the heart:

13 / 70

“Proximal” means:

14 / 70

Golgi apparatus:

15 / 70

Internal environment refers to:

16 / 70

Sensing is done by:

17 / 70

Normal body temperature:

18 / 70

The stomach is ______ to the lungs:

19 / 70

Meiosis produces:

20 / 70

Rough ER:

21 / 70

“Anterior” means:

22 / 70

Example of positive feedback:

23 / 70

Negative feedback:

24 / 70

Transverse plane divides:

25 / 70

Quadrants are mainly used for:

26 / 70

Anatomical position includes:

27 / 70

Lysosomes are:

28 / 70

Enzymes function best at:

29 / 70

Histology is:

30 / 70

Smooth ER:

31 / 70

Nucleus contains:

32 / 70

The term “homeostasis” is derived from:

33 / 70

Frontal plane divides:

34 / 70

The basic level of organization starts with:

35 / 70

Plasma membrane is:

36 / 70

Cranial cavity contains:

37 / 70

Urea is excreted by:

38 / 70

Ipsilateral means:

39 / 70

Sagittal plane divides body into:

40 / 70

Homeostasis means:

41 / 70

Control center is usually:

42 / 70

Hydrophobic means:

43 / 70

Cell theory states:

44 / 70

Abdominal cavity contains:

45 / 70

Vasodilation causes:

46 / 70

Study of bones is called:

47 / 70

Homeostasis maintains conditions within:

48 / 70

Correct order of organization:

49 / 70

Contralateral means:

50 / 70

Study of cells is called:

51 / 70

Vasoconstriction causes:

52 / 70

Apoptosis is:

53 / 70

Cell is:

54 / 70

Centrosome helps in:

55 / 70

The heart is ______ to the sternum:

56 / 70

Thoracic cavity contains:

57 / 70

Positive feedback:

58 / 70

Receptor function is to:

59 / 70

Responding is done by:

60 / 70

Mitochondria is:

61 / 70

Mitosis produces:

62 / 70

Homeostasis is essential for:

63 / 70

Stimulus is:

64 / 70

Feedback mechanism is:

65 / 70

Ribosomes function:

66 / 70

Diffusion is:

67 / 70

Which factor affects homeostasis?

68 / 70

Cell was discovered by:

69 / 70

Fingers are ______ to the wrist:

70 / 70

The term “superior” means:

Your score is

The average score is 0%

Anatomy AHS

1 / 100

UPJ stands for?

2 / 100

Fundus is usually full of?

3 / 100

Upper third blood supply?

4 / 100

Superior surface related to?

5 / 100

Male ligament holding neck?

6 / 100

Esophagus passes through diaphragm at?

7 / 100

Posterior vagal trunk supplies?

8 / 100

Ureters are?

9 / 100

The penis receives arterial supply mainly from branches of the:

10 / 100

Right gastric artery arises from?

11 / 100

The prostate surrounds the:

12 / 100

Vesical venous plexus drains into?

13 / 100

Middle third blood supply?

14 / 100

Posterior relation?

15 / 100

Short gastric arteries arise from?

16 / 100

The prepuce is another name for the:

17 / 100

The ejaculatory duct is formed by union of vas deferens and:

18 / 100

The glans penis is formed by expansion of the:

19 / 100

Ureter enters pelvis at?

20 / 100

The body of the penis contains:

21 / 100

The terminal dilated part of the vas deferens is called the:

22 / 100

Cardiac orifice has?

23 / 100

The seminal vesicles lie on the posterior surface of the:

24 / 100

Adult bladder capacity?

25 / 100

Lower third blood supply?

26 / 100

Sympathetic nerve?

27 / 100

Ridge between ureters?

28 / 100

Right gastroepiploic vein drains into?

29 / 100

Typical stomach shape?

30 / 100

Spermatogenesis requires a temperature:

31 / 100

First constriction of ureter?

32 / 100

Stomach folds are called?

33 / 100

Sympathetic fibers come from?

34 / 100

Parasympathetic nerve?

35 / 100

Neck rests on?

36 / 100

Lymph ultimately drains to?

37 / 100

Circular muscle at neck forms?

38 / 100

Ureters pierce bladder?

39 / 100

LES is a?

40 / 100

The seminal vesicles produce fluid that:

41 / 100

The fibrous capsule of the testis is called:

42 / 100

Stomach capacity?

43 / 100

Upper esophageal sphincter formed by?

44 / 100

Parasympathetic fibers causing erection arise from:

45 / 100

The middle lobe of the prostate lies between the urethra and:

46 / 100

The vas deferens begins at the tail of the:

47 / 100

The prostate lies between the bladder neck and the:

48 / 100

The epididymis is approximately:

49 / 100

Length of esophagus?

50 / 100

The testicular arteries arise directly from the:

51 / 100

Right border formed by?

52 / 100

Unique muscle layer?

53 / 100

Lesser curvature attached to liver by?

54 / 100

The prostatic secretion is:

55 / 100

The main function of the epididymis is:

56 / 100

The left testicular vein drains into the:

57 / 100

Lymph from the testes drains to the:

58 / 100

The veins of the prostate form the:

59 / 100

Length of pyloric canal?

60 / 100

Bladder muscle called?

61 / 100

The right testicular vein drains into the:

62 / 100

The vas deferens passes through the:

63 / 100

Turn anteromedially at level of?

64 / 100

Vesical arteries arise from?

65 / 100

Ureter is continuation of?

66 / 100

Ureters descend on?

67 / 100

Greater omentum extends to?

68 / 100

The anterior lobe of the prostate lacks:

69 / 100

Empty adult bladder lies in?

70 / 100

Most tubular part?

71 / 100

The penis has how many main anatomical parts?

72 / 100

Anterior vagal trunk supplies?

73 / 100

Pyloric sphincter inhibitory fibers from?

74 / 100

Length of ureter?

75 / 100

Anterior wall of rectovesical pouch formed by?

76 / 100

Inferior angle gives rise to?

77 / 100

Somatic nerve?

78 / 100

Function of ureters?

79 / 100

The epididymis lies:

80 / 100

Left gastric artery arises from?

81 / 100

The vas deferens is about how long?

82 / 100

Apex connected to umbilicus by?

83 / 100

Median umbilical ligament is remnant of?

84 / 100

Pelvic cavity lies between?

85 / 100

Stomach veins drain to?

86 / 100

Right gastroepiploic artery arises from?

87 / 100

Bladder lies behind?

88 / 100

Parasympathetic stimulation causes?

89 / 100

Posterior surface is called?

90 / 100

Lymph drains to?

91 / 100

The urethra passes through the:

92 / 100

Buck fascia is also known as the:

93 / 100

Empty bladder shape?

94 / 100

Area on base called?

95 / 100

Anterior relation?

96 / 100

Esophagus begins at level?

97 / 100

Uvula vesicae due to?

98 / 100

Body extends to?

99 / 100

Esophagus ends at level?

100 / 100

Gastrin causes?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

Anatomy AHS

1 / 100

The penis receives arterial supply mainly from branches of the:

2 / 100

The right testicular vein drains into the:

3 / 100

The vas deferens is about how long?

4 / 100

Typical stomach shape?

5 / 100

Somatic nerve?

6 / 100

Parasympathetic nerve?

7 / 100

The vas deferens passes through the:

8 / 100

Posterior surface is called?

9 / 100

The fibrous capsule of the testis is called:

10 / 100

Inferior angle gives rise to?

11 / 100

The penis has how many main anatomical parts?

12 / 100

Anterior vagal trunk supplies?

13 / 100

Upper esophageal sphincter formed by?

14 / 100

Unique muscle layer?

15 / 100

Uvula vesicae due to?

16 / 100

Sympathetic nerve?

17 / 100

Ureter is continuation of?

18 / 100

Body extends to?

19 / 100

The seminal vesicles lie on the posterior surface of the:

20 / 100

Lymph drains to?

21 / 100

Male ligament holding neck?

22 / 100

Stomach veins drain to?

23 / 100

Right gastric artery arises from?

24 / 100

Cardiac orifice has?

25 / 100

Esophagus begins at level?

26 / 100

The testicular arteries arise directly from the:

27 / 100

Neck rests on?

28 / 100

Lymph ultimately drains to?

29 / 100

The middle lobe of the prostate lies between the urethra and:

30 / 100

Ridge between ureters?

31 / 100

Lower third blood supply?

32 / 100

Empty adult bladder lies in?

33 / 100

Stomach folds are called?

34 / 100

Fundus is usually full of?

35 / 100

Lesser curvature attached to liver by?

36 / 100

Vesical venous plexus drains into?

37 / 100

Ureters pierce bladder?

38 / 100

Greater omentum extends to?

39 / 100

The epididymis lies:

40 / 100

Ureters descend on?

41 / 100

Area on base called?

42 / 100

The prostate surrounds the:

43 / 100

The body of the penis contains:

44 / 100

Posterior vagal trunk supplies?

45 / 100

Right border formed by?

46 / 100

Posterior relation?

47 / 100

Circular muscle at neck forms?

48 / 100

Right gastroepiploic vein drains into?

49 / 100

Middle third blood supply?

50 / 100

Most tubular part?

51 / 100

Function of ureters?

52 / 100

Apex connected to umbilicus by?

53 / 100

Bladder muscle called?

54 / 100

The seminal vesicles produce fluid that:

55 / 100

Bladder lies behind?

56 / 100

First constriction of ureter?

57 / 100

Superior surface related to?

58 / 100

Turn anteromedially at level of?

59 / 100

Upper third blood supply?

60 / 100

Lymph from the testes drains to the:

61 / 100

Sympathetic fibers come from?

62 / 100

The left testicular vein drains into the:

63 / 100

Gastrin causes?

64 / 100

Parasympathetic fibers causing erection arise from:

65 / 100

Ureter enters pelvis at?

66 / 100

Empty bladder shape?

67 / 100

The glans penis is formed by expansion of the:

68 / 100

Pyloric sphincter inhibitory fibers from?

69 / 100

Adult bladder capacity?

70 / 100

Stomach capacity?

71 / 100

Parasympathetic stimulation causes?

72 / 100

Right gastroepiploic artery arises from?

73 / 100

The prepuce is another name for the:

74 / 100

The epididymis is approximately:

75 / 100

Anterior relation?

76 / 100

Median umbilical ligament is remnant of?

77 / 100

Length of ureter?

78 / 100

LES is a?

79 / 100

The main function of the epididymis is:

80 / 100

Spermatogenesis requires a temperature:

81 / 100

Vesical arteries arise from?

82 / 100

Length of esophagus?

83 / 100

Length of pyloric canal?

84 / 100

Pelvic cavity lies between?

85 / 100

The urethra passes through the:

86 / 100

The anterior lobe of the prostate lacks:

87 / 100

Esophagus passes through diaphragm at?

88 / 100

Buck fascia is also known as the:

89 / 100

The vas deferens begins at the tail of the:

90 / 100

The ejaculatory duct is formed by union of vas deferens and:

91 / 100

Ureters are?

92 / 100

The prostate lies between the bladder neck and the:

93 / 100

Left gastric artery arises from?

94 / 100

The veins of the prostate form the:

95 / 100

Anterior wall of rectovesical pouch formed by?

96 / 100

The terminal dilated part of the vas deferens is called the:

97 / 100

Short gastric arteries arise from?

98 / 100

The prostatic secretion is:

99 / 100

UPJ stands for?

100 / 100

Esophagus ends at level?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

Anatomy AHS Part 2

1 / 100

The first inch of the duodenum resembles the:

2 / 100

The small intestine extends from the pylorus to the:

3 / 100

Internal genital organs include:

4 / 100

The ovarian ligament extends from ovary to:

5 / 100

The appendix is usually located in the:

6 / 100

Labia minora fuse anteriorly to form the:

7 / 100

The lowest part of the ileum is supplied by the:

8 / 100

The veins of ascending colon drain into:

9 / 100

The ovarian artery arises from the:

10 / 100

The distal third of transverse colon is innervated by:

11 / 100

Parasympathetic fibers of uterus arise from:

12 / 100

The first part of the duodenum lies at the level of:

13 / 100

The jejunum and ileum are attached by the:

14 / 100

The fourth part of the duodenum ends at the:

15 / 100

The second part of the duodenum lies beside vertebral levels:

16 / 100

The rectouterine pouch is also known as:

17 / 100

The cortex of ovary contains:

18 / 100

The duodenum is approximately how long?

19 / 100

The tunica vaginalis is derived from the:

20 / 100

The cremasteric reflex is mediated by the:

21 / 100

The wall of the jejunum feels thicker because of:

22 / 100

The broad ligament acts as:

23 / 100

The female reproductive organs include both:

24 / 100

Lymph from ovaries drains into:

25 / 100

The duodenum curves around the head of the:

26 / 100

The hymen is found at the:

27 / 100

The vagina extends from vulva to:

28 / 100

The uterine artery is found in the:

29 / 100

The ovary produces:

30 / 100

Fimbriae function to:

31 / 100

The ileum ends at the:

32 / 100

The bile duct and main pancreatic duct open into the:

33 / 100

The lower half of the duodenum is supplied by the:

34 / 100

The uterus is normally:

35 / 100

The vestibular bulbs are analogous to the male:

36 / 100

Labia majora are:

37 / 100

The ovarian fossa is bounded above by:

38 / 100

The jejunum begins at the:

39 / 100

The uterine tube is approximately:

40 / 100

The left testis usually lies:

41 / 100

The surface epithelium of ovary is:

42 / 100

Plicae circulares are absent in the lower:

43 / 100

The upper half of the duodenum is supplied by the:

44 / 100

The third part of the duodenum runs:

45 / 100

The ileum is usually located in the:

46 / 100

The upper two-fifths of the small intestine form the:

47 / 100

The sympathetic fibers to the duodenum mainly arise from:

48 / 100

Lymph from the small intestine drains finally to the:

49 / 100

The cecum receives arterial supply from:

50 / 100

The jejunum is usually located in the:

51 / 100

The jejunum is described as:

52 / 100

Lymph from the scrotum drains to the:

53 / 100

The endometrium sheds during:

54 / 100

The cervix communicates with uterus through:

55 / 100

The accessory pancreatic duct opens into the:

56 / 100

Jejunal arteries form:

57 / 100

Wrinkling of scrotal skin is caused by the:

58 / 100

The cremaster muscle is derived from the:

59 / 100

Which structure is NOT part of the vulva?

60 / 100

The proximal two-thirds of transverse colon is innervated by:

61 / 100

The large intestine stores undigested material until:

62 / 100

The vestibule contains openings of the:

63 / 100

The clitoris is analogous to the:

64 / 100

The second part of the duodenum lies in front of the hilum of the:

65 / 100

The inferior vagina drains lymph to:

66 / 100

The narrow part of uterine tube is called:

67 / 100

Which part of the small intestine is C-shaped?

68 / 100

The base of appendix is found by tracing:

69 / 100

Fat in the jejunal mesentery is deposited:

70 / 100

The suspensory ligament of ovary contains:

71 / 100

The smooth muscle tone of ileocecal sphincter increases when:

72 / 100

The muscular layer of uterus is:

73 / 100

Venous drainage of the jejunum and ileum goes to the:

74 / 100

The external female genitalia are collectively called:

75 / 100

The scrotum contains the:

76 / 100

The scrotum is an outpouching of the:

77 / 100

The round ligament helps maintain:

78 / 100

The right ovarian vein drains into the:

79 / 100

The superior mesenteric plexus supplies nerves to:

80 / 100

Circular folds in the duodenum are called:

81 / 100

The arterial supply of vagina is from:

82 / 100

The arterial supply of jejunum and ileum comes mainly from the:

83 / 100

The fundus of uterus lies:

84 / 100

The ligament of Treitz is attached to the:

85 / 100

Fertilization usually occurs in the:

86 / 100

Peyer’s patches are commonly found in the:

87 / 100

The posterior fornix acts as a reservoir for:

88 / 100

The external male genital organs include the:

89 / 100

The anterior scrotal artery arises from the:

90 / 100

The longest part of the alimentary canal is the:

91 / 100

The ileum receives blood vessels from:
m

92 / 100

Nerves to the jejunum and ileum arise from the:

93 / 100

The jejunum and ileum together measure approximately:

94 / 100

The ovary is attached to the broad ligament by:

95 / 100

Bartholin glands are also called:

96 / 100

The mons pubis is located anterior to the:

97 / 100

The uterus is described as:

98 / 100

Parasympathetic innervation of the duodenum is through the:

99 / 100

The root of the mesentery extends from L2 to the:

100 / 100

The first part of the duodenum begins at the:

Your score is

The average score is 0%

Anatomy AHS part 3

Hallmark College of Nursing

Paper Instructions

• Total Time: 50 Minutes
• Read all questions carefully before answering.
• No cheating or unfair means are allowed.
• Do not close, refresh, or leave the quiz screen during the examination.
• Each participant may attempt the quiz only once.
• Ensure a stable internet connection throughout the quiz.
• Any violation of the rules may result in disqualification.
• Submit your answers before the time expires.

Best of Luck!

1 / 100

Appendicular skeleton consists of:

2 / 100

Lymph from ascending colon drains to:

3 / 100

Cartilaginous bones develop by:

4 / 100

Hyaline cartilage is found in:

5 / 100

Bronchopulmonary segment is:

6 / 100

The ascending colon ends at the:

7 / 100

Elastic cartilage contains:

8 / 100

Fibrocartilage is found in:

9 / 100

The fibrous covering of cartilage is:

10 / 100

Chondrocytes are located in:

11 / 100

Number of pulmonary veins leaving each lung:

12 / 100

Pulmonary arteries carry:

13 / 100

Left lung has:

14 / 100

Cartilage receives nutrients by:

15 / 100

Spongy bone consists of:

16 / 100

The ileocecal sphincter controls flow from:

17 / 100

Base of lung rests on:

18 / 100

The phrenicocolic ligament connects colon to:

19 / 100

Segmental veins run:

20 / 100

Bone formation is called:

21 / 100

Left lung fissures:

22 / 100

In children, lungs are:

23 / 100

The main function of the large intestine is:

24 / 100

Intramembranous ossification mainly forms:

25 / 100

The longitudinal muscle bands of the colon are called:

26 / 100

Elastic cartilage is found in:

27 / 100

Fertilization of transverse colon blood supply occurs through:

28 / 100

The transverse colon is about:

29 / 100

Which structure is NOT part of the large intestine?

30 / 100

Right lung has how many lobes?

31 / 100

The descending colon lies mainly in the:

32 / 100

The appendix arises from the cecum on its:

33 / 100

The cecum is located in the:

34 / 100

The spaces in spongy bone contain:

35 / 100

Epiploic appendages are composed mainly of:

36 / 100

Bronchial arteries arise from:

37 / 100

Each segment is supplied by:

38 / 100

Lymph from descending colon drains to:

39 / 100

Cartilage is not innervated, meaning:

40 / 100

Total number of appendicular bones is:

41 / 100

Cartilage matrix is:

42 / 100

The descending colon becomes continuous with:

43 / 100

Main cells of cartilage are:

44 / 100

Pulmonary plexus is located at:

45 / 100

The segmented appearance of the colon is due to:

46 / 100

The appendix contains abundant:

47 / 100

Cells that produce cartilage matrix are:

48 / 100

Pulmonary veins carry:

49 / 100

Parasympathetic stimulation causes:

50 / 100

Bronchioles have:

51 / 100

Which bone is membranocartilaginous?

52 / 100

Apex of lung extends:

53 / 100

Lungs are described as:

54 / 100

The cecum is approximately how long?

55 / 100

Sympathetic stimulation causes:

56 / 100

Inner layer of perichondrium is important for:

57 / 100

The left colic flexure lies below the:

58 / 100

Hyaline cartilage helps in:

59 / 100

Lungs are covered by:

60 / 100

Toughest cartilage is:

61 / 100

Bronchopulmonary segments are:

62 / 100

Fibrocartilage contains:

63 / 100

The distal third of transverse colon is supplied by:

64 / 100

The transverse colon is suspended by the:

65 / 100

Hilum of lung is:

66 / 100

The appendicular artery is a branch of:

67 / 100

Bones formed by intramembranous ossification are called:

68 / 100

Canaliculi are:

69 / 100

Alveoli are surrounded by:

70 / 100

Total number of bones in axial skeleton is:

71 / 100

Visceral pain fibers from appendix enter spinal cord at:

72 / 100

Lungs are located:

73 / 100

Outer layer of perichondrium provides:

74 / 100

The descending colon is supplied by:

75 / 100

Cartilage heals slowly because:

76 / 100

McBurney’s point is associated with:

77 / 100

Membrane bones develop from:

78 / 100

Lymph from lungs drains into:

79 / 100

The ascending colon is supplied by:

80 / 100

Gas exchange occurs in:

81 / 100

The ileocecal valve is formed by:

82 / 100

Cardiac notch is present in:

83 / 100

The large intestine extends from the ileum to the:

84 / 100

Which cartilage is most common?

85 / 100

Cartilage is:

86 / 100

Ground substance of cartilage mainly contains:

87 / 100

The axial skeleton includes:

88 / 100

Fibrocartilage lacks:

89 / 100

Most bones of the body are:

90 / 100

Cartilage is a type of:

91 / 100

The mediastinal surface of lung is:

92 / 100

Right lung fissures:

93 / 100

The ascending colon is approximately:

94 / 100

The hormone causing relaxation of ileocecal sphincter tone is:

95 / 100

Elastic cartilage is:

96 / 100

Growth in length of long bones involves:

97 / 100

Shape of lungs is:

98 / 100

With age, lungs become:

99 / 100

Hyaline cartilage appears:

100 / 100

Which of the following is an example of membrane bone?

Your score is

The average score is 0%

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